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Did our Lord Jesus Christ actually Himself drink of the ‘cup’ of The New Covenant with His disciples at the ‘last supper’?

At the time of year which we as Christians remember our Lord’s days of deliverance and crucifixion, a teaching about the Passover feast is at times presented with the act by our Lord Jesus giving His disciples the Holy Sacraments of Communion (Luke 22). The ‘Cup’ our Lord offered is His Body and our Communion with Him, remembering His sacrifice upon the cross for the redemption of our sins, His Blood shed for us.
     The Israelite Passover feast was that time of our Lord’s Last Supper He held with His disciples. So the old ‘ritual’ dogma of the Passover feast is sometimes taught in relation to how Christ Jesus gave us The New Covenant of His Blood, with the Bread and the Wine.
     The following paragraph was presented as Christian Doctrine by certain ones, and represents a ‘false doctrine’, alluding that our Lord Jesus drank from the same ‘cup’ as what He gave to His disciples, to ‘seal’ The New Covenant. Read it ‘very’ carefully:

“Wine was used at several points in The Passover meal. It is believed that Jesus chose the third cup of wine…known as the cup of redemption. He did not drink the fourth cup of consummation, but pledged that redemption would be consummated at that future messianic banquet when He drinks it anew in the kingdom of God.”

     That paragraph, with the remark, “It is believed that Jesus chose the third cup of wine…known as the cup of redemption. He did not drink the fourth cup…”, is a bit tricky, but it assumes Jesus did drink of the ‘third cup of wine’ of redemption. And we know what ‘redemption’ means don’t we? It means The New Covenant of His Blood; Christ’s Blood shed for us. That’s what the cup our Lord offered to His disciples at the last supper represents (Luke 22:20). For our Lord to also partake of it would be to admit He was not worthy to take our sins away, that He needed it also. That’s false doctrine of devils friend, anyway you look at it!
     I will not reveal the author of that paragraph, they know who they are. I also heard this false doctrine presented on a Christian radio broadcast preparing for Easter holidays. Let’s read our Lord’s Words from Luke 22 and compare It with that paragraph:

Luke 22:16    For I say unto you, I will not any more eat thereof, until it be fulfilled in the kingdom of God.
17    And He took the cup, and gave thanks, and said, ‘Take this, and divide it among yourselves:

18    For I say unto you, I will not drink of the fruit of the vine, until the kingdom of God shall come.
19    And He took bread, and gave thanks, and brake it, and gave unto them, saying, ‘This is My body which is given for you: this do in remembrance of Me.’
20    Likewise also the cup after supper, saying, “This cup is the new testament in My blood, which is shed for you.”

     There were three separate suppers our Lord partook of during the Passover days (see Companion Bible Appendixes 156 and 157). This supper here in Luke 22; Mark 14; Matt.26, was the ‘last’ supper, before His being delivered up to be crucified. And the last supper event is the only mention of more than one ‘cup’, as noted above.
     Jesus DID NOT drink of it with His disciples there! He gave it to HIS DISCIPLES, commanding THEM to drink of it. This is the ‘main’ point of these verses, for that ‘cup’ and ‘bread’ represent The New Covenant of His BODY. This is VERY IMPORTANT. Especially note Luke 22:18 & 22:16. Regardless of whether our Lord did actually eat and drink anything at the Passover with His disciples, with that New Covenant Commandment of observance, He set forth a remembrance of Him for all Christians to hold still today, called Holy Communion. So let no man tell you He ate and drank of that part, or cup, along with His disciples. He did not.
     That paragraph referenced is about the traditions of Passover meal. That author is ‘speculating’, with the phrase “it is believed that Jesus chose…”. That author is also applying the ‘cups’ to dispensational times of Christ’s Kingdom (see Companion Bible Appendix #140, about the “Gospel of The Kingdom”). Our Lord conquered ‘Death’ for us, but His Kingdom is still ‘expecting‘ until His enemies be made His footstool (Hebrews 10:12-19). That’s when Jesus will actually ‘drink’ with His disciples in His Kingdom, at His Second Advent as KING OF KINGS AND LORD OF LORDS (Rev.11; Rev.20). We as being ‘in Christ’ look forward to that Day of The Lord, His thousand year reign on earth. That’s when we will drink and eat with Him. To ‘consummate’ means to complete a ‘contract’, make due, or make good, in final. With a marriage, it is consummated when the husband goes in the ‘tent’ to his wife, and they become ‘one’. That consummation applies spiritually with Christ The Bridegroom, and His Bride, The Church, i.e. Body of Christ.
     But our Lord didn’t teach about His selecting from among a group of ‘cups’, drinking from some, and not others. That’s bogus. As per Luke 22, He gave His disciples to drink from two cups, one during the Passover meal, and one after, to represent the New Covenant. But our Lord drank of neither. His ‘cup’ which He was to drink of, was a metaphor for the suffering upon the cross to fulfill His Mission for the first Advent as Savior. Our Lord drank from a SPECIAL spiritual cup which was meant for Him only. Two people per Matt.20:20-24 with Zebedee’s children, asked ‘unknowingly’ to suffer like Christ did. They really didn’t know what our Lord’s ‘cup’ was about, otherwise they wouldn’t have agreed with “we are able”, after Jesus had asked them if they were able to drink of HIS ‘cup’ (Matt.20:22). I think we know better than to ask that which the mother of Zebedee did, do we not?
     So our Lord did NOT drink of that author’s so stated “third cup of wine…known as the cup of redemption” either! If He had, wouldn’t that have made the ‘cup’ of The New Covenant void and null if He partook also? It sure would, because the ‘victim’ of Old Testament sacrifice was required to be killed, blood spilled for atonement and the Passover. Our Lord Jesus Christ was in place of the animal ‘victim’ of sacrifice. He became our Passover Lamb sacrificed for us (1 Cor.5:7). Can a ‘victim’ also partake of its own BLOOD in sacrifice? That’s what Christ would be doing IF He had drank of that ‘cup’ along with His disciples.
     The main ‘hinge point’ of being ‘in Christ’ is to never deny Him as God’s Role of Savior, Emmanuel, “God with us.” (Matt.1:23). That also means knowing and understanding Christ’s Role as Savior as given by God from Genesis through Revelation. If ANY doctrine, absolutely ANY, teaches ANYTHING which pulls down Christ Jesus’ Role as Savior, our New Covenant sacrificed for us, or… tries to put ‘man’ on an equal ‘par’ with our Lord Christ Jesus, then they work for the ‘wicked one’, either knowingly, or in ignorance.
     The following verses of 1 John 4:1-3 do not mean, “Well that teacher says they believe Christ is The Son of God, so they must be of God.” Not so fast…. If one believes they can become ‘like’ Christ, or be ‘a Christ’, or claim any ‘role’ our Lord Jesus performed or held, then they are NOT of God. It’s as simple as that. And the false ones will detract from Christ Jesus while building themselves up in His place, and all the while ‘claiming’ to believe on Jesus as The Son of God, just to fool you. So the denying of Jesus of Nazareth as The Christ can come hidden in many forms and fashions. That paragraph quoted is just one of them, with the “fourth cup” thing.

I Jn 4:1    Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world.
2    Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God:
3    And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world.

One thought on “Did our Lord Jesus Christ actually Himself drink of the ‘cup’ of The New Covenant with His disciples at the ‘last supper’?

  1. So our Lord did NOT drink of that author’s so stated “third cup of wine…known as the cup of redemption”
    1 Corinthians 11:25
    “After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me.”
    they work for the ‘wicked one’, either knowingly, or in ignorance.
    Hope your working for HIM in ignorance.

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